Re: Why are these so similar if their algorithms are so different? (amod vs fmod)

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Subject: Re: Why are these so similar if their algorithms are so different? (amod vs fmod)
From: SoX NG <sox_ng@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
Date: Thu, 13 Feb 2025 17:05:22 +0100
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PS

On 13/02/25 17:02, SoX NG wrote:

 the second sounds twice as fast as the first

That's probably because the slope of a -1 to +1 wave is twice that of a0 to 1 one



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References:
- Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?
  - From: SoX NG
- Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: Doug Lee
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: Martin Guy
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: Doug Lee
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: Martin Guy
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: Doug Lee
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: SoX NG
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: John Dyson via Sox-users
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: SoX NG
- Re: Dolby A example (was Re: Has anyone ever used `echos` or `chorus`?)
  - From: Doug Lee
- Why are these so similar if their algorithms are so different? (amod vs fmod)
  - From: Doug Lee
- Re: Why are these so similar if their algorithms are so different? (amod vs fmod)
  - From: SoX NG

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