On Mon, Jun 11, 2018 at 7:47 PM, bing zhu <zhubohong12@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Dear Sir/Ma'amHow can i map a kernel virtual address to a user process's same virtual address ?is it possible ?thank you for your timebest wishes!
Dear Bing
Just to clarify, what do you mean by "user process' same virtual address"?
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regards,
Mulyadi Santosa
Freelance Linux trainer and consultant
blog: the-hydra.blogspot.com
training: mulyaditraining.blogspot.com
Mulyadi Santosa
Freelance Linux trainer and consultant
blog: the-hydra.blogspot.com
training: mulyaditraining.blogspot.com
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