On Wednesday 28 February 2007 06:57, Mulyadi Santosa wrote: > Hi > > > hi all, > > > > For a 32-bit machine, there is total 4GB of memory(Physiacl > > addresses). So > > in that 1 GB for Kernel and 3GB for User Space. > > Correct, assuming you're using 3:1 VM (virtual memory) split, that is > 3GB for user space and 1GB for kernel space. Let's say we have 1GB ram in the machine. The kernel uses virtual addresses 3gb-4gb to address using identity mapping to 1gb. Where does user space gets it's memory in physical ram? Obviously it will have to intermingle with other kernel allocations. Is there a rule for that or some kind of ordering in physical memory? Let's say we have 2gb ram. If the kernel already allocated it's 3-4gb (1gb) but it wants more, it will have to resort to taking from virtual user space addresses, right? but they won't be protected so what gives? 10x. -- Regards, Tzahi. -- Tzahi Fadida Blog: http://tzahi.blogsite.org | Home Site: http://tzahi.webhop.info WARNING TO SPAMMERS: see at http://members.lycos.co.uk/my2nis/spamwarning.html -- To unsubscribe from this list: send an email with "unsubscribe kernelnewbies" to ecartis@xxxxxxxxxxxx Please read the FAQ at http://kernelnewbies.org/FAQ
