RE: Is this correct?

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I get confused because I picture other 10.0.0.0/24 hosts arping for
10.0.0.1 and getting the MAC for linux-router/eth0. How is this not the
case?

Thank you all so much for the help!

On Thu, 2003-06-19 at 17:10, George Vieira wrote:
> The only way I know of to do that is use iproute2 (or ifconfig) and add that IP to the firewalls eth0 device and fix your rule (lowercase J).
> 
> ip addr add 10.0.0.1/8 dev eth0
> iptables -t nat -I PREROUTING -i eth0 -d 10.0.0.1 -j DNAT \
>  --to 192.168.0.1
> 
> I think that'll work OK..
> 
> Thanks,
> ____________________________________________
> George Vieira
> Systems Manager
> georgev@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> 
> Citadel Computer Systems Pty Ltd
> http://www.citadelcomputer.com.au
> 
> Phone   : +61 2 9955 2644
> HelpDesk: +61 2 9955 2698
>  
> 
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Shawn [mailto:core@xxxxxxxxxx]
> Sent: Friday, June 20, 2003 7:07 AM
> To: netfilter@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Subject: Is this correct?
> 
> 
> I have a, iptables statement I would just like someone to say if I have
> it right.
> 
> Let's say I have a linux box with eth0=10.0.0.250 and
> eth1=192.168.0.250, and there's a host (192.168.0.1) connected to eth1.
> I want to route connections from hosts in 10.0.0.0/24 land to 10.0.0.1
> onto the linux box's eth0, and have them NATed to 192.168.0.1
> 
> Will the following statement do that?
> 
> iptables -t nat -I PREROUTING -i eth0 -d 10.0.0.1 -J DNAT \
> 	--to 192.168.0.1
> 
> 
> 


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