On Wed, Feb 7, 2018 at 11:18 PM, Khaled Omar <eng.khaled.omar@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> So how does the machine I’m talking on, which is behind a IPv4 only ISP,
communicate to the IPv6 hosts that it does?
There is no solution to allow IPv4 only hosts to communicate with IPv6 only hosts except IPv10.
Khaled, Many folk have tried to explain to you that in today's network:
1) ipv4-only client + ipv6-only server == working
1) ipv4-only client + ipv6-only server == working
2) ipv6-only client + ipv4-only server == working
you seem to believe that is not the case, and it's unclear to most readers here (I think) why you believe that to be the case?
there are translation mechanisms in place to permit such connectivity, when it's expected to work.
Yes, it's not possible for your ipv4 only client to talk to my ipv6-only server if I don't put in place the correct translation techniques, but if I want you to be able to do this I will take the time to put in place the right bells and whistles.
Railing again and again that the world is unable to do things which it patently can do isn't helping you out, nor this conversation out.
-chris