Re: why can't IETF emulate IEEE on this point?

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On 25 Sep 2007 at 18:40 +0000, Paul Vixie allegedly wrote:
> very clear, very well done, but if anything it adds to my list of
> questions rather than subtracting from that, since it begs the
> question, what is the objective definition of "reasonable and
> nondiscriminatory"?

The more a disclosure clarifies that, the more the WGs like it.

On 25 Sep 2007 at 11:51 -0700, Stephan Wenger allegedly wrote:
> Actually, per RFC 3978 and friends, the IETF does not even require a
> RAND commitment.  There have recently been cases where RFCs have
> been issued with known patents that are not offered under RAND
> terms.  It's up to the WG and IETF consensus to decide whether I-Ds
> including such encumbered technology can become RFCs (and what class
> of RFCs).

Right.

I'm with Ted ... let's take this over to ipr-wg.

Scott

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