Re: Question about the normative nature of IETF RFCs

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> Specifically, when I first became associated with you all in 1992, the
> RFCs of most IETF standards were incomplete and the reference
> implementations (i.e., running code) were what was considered to be
> normative. 

I've been involved with IETF since circa 1990 and have always been of
the impression that standards-track RFCs - not implementations - were
intended to be normative.   Frankly I don't see how it could be any
other way.  While a discrepancy between an implementation and a
specification _might_ be due to a flaw in the specification, it is at
least as likely to be due to a flaw in the implementation - and the
specification is the primary definition of the protocol, whereas any
particular implementation is merely an artifact. Also, every single
attempt I have seen to try to derive a normative specification of a
protocol from an implementation has produced a document which failed to
adequately specify the protocol. 

As far as IETF is concerned, running code should be seen as a
proof-of-concept and a test vehicle, not as primary source material.

Keith

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