On Sun, 6 Apr 2008, Johannes Schindelin wrote: > > AFAICT you do not even need them then. Using "struct strbuf *" without > ever declaring struct strbuf before that is perfectly valid. In traditional C, and inside structure declarations etc, yes. In modern C, in other contexts, no. Modern C considers a function declaration to be its own scope (it's the scope of the function definition, which in a declaration is obviously just the declaration). So if you use a "struct xyzzy *" in a function declaration, it will be a *different* "struct xyzzy *" from one declared later. Try to compile something like this: int fn(struct xyzzy *); int fn(struct xyzzy *); with a modern C compiler, and it will actually say something along the lines of "conflicting types for ʽfnʼ", because while the two declarations look identical, they actually have two different (private) declarations of "struct xyzzy" going on. But to make it even more interesting, you don't actually need a full declaration of "struct xyzzy" to make the compiler happy, you only need an implicit one ahead of time. You can do that with the incomplete declaration, of course (like the --graph patch did), ie just a simple struct xyzzy; before those declarations is sufficient, but so is the implicit declaration of just using the pointer to it in some non-private scope, ie it's equally valid to do struct foobar { struct xyzzy *ptr; }; and this will already be enough to declare "struct xyzzy" in scope for the function declarations afterwards. Is this illogical? Somewhat. Why is it a private scope in a function declaration but not in a struct declaration? Why isn't the function scope limited to the stuff *inside* the function? Somebody probably knows, but for the rest of us the answer is just "that's how it is, deal with it". Linus -- To unsubscribe from this list: send the line "unsubscribe git" in the body of a message to majordomo@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx More majordomo info at http://vger.kernel.org/majordomo-info.html