Re: When is "z" != "z" ?

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On Sun, 2006-06-04 at 16:45, tedd wrote:
> At 1:09 PM -0700 6/4/06, Rasmus Lerdorf wrote:
> >>I agree with [1] and [2], but [3] is where we part company. You see, if you are right, then "aaa" would also be less than "z", but that doesn't appear so.
> >
> >Of course it is.
> >
> >php -r 'echo "aaa" < "z";'
> >1
> 
> You missed the point, why does --
> 
> for ($i="a"; $i<="z"; $i++)
>   {
>   echo($i);
>    }
> 
> -- not continue past "aaa"? Clearly, if "aaa" is less than "z" then why does the loop stop at "yz"?

Because right after 'yz' there is 'zz' and 'z' is neither less than nor
equal to 'zz'.

Cheers,
Rob.
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