On Thu, May 10, 2018 at 11:19:36AM +0100, Ben Hood wrote: > The question should not be “how does Postgres store the timestamp internally”. > > Rather it should read “is enforcing the submission of UTC denominated timestamps in the server by using a domain a sensible way to enforce a policy that will blow up when apps attempt to use non-UTC timestamps (when they shouldn’t be)”. > > So the question is not how does the timestamp get stored, rather, is it an anti-pattern to use Postgres as a linter for apps that forget to use UTC exclusively? I dare say it is one of PG's strengths' to be usable as a "linter". However, maybe rephrase to: Is it an anti-pattern to use Postgres as a linter for apps that forget to use ... timezones *appropriately* ... ? As long as you can force apps to submit proper timestamp-with- timezone data is there _really_ a need to care whether apps do submit in UTC ? After all, it is always converted to UTC servside anyway ? In case you want to enforce only ever _handing out_ UTC data you could wrap the table in a view with forces the output timezone to UTC and only offers timestamp-withOUT-timezone to the outside. Then force read access via the view. Karsten -- GPG key ID E4071346 @ eu.pool.sks-keyservers.net E167 67FD A291 2BEA 73BD 4537 78B9 A9F9 E407 1346
