Agreed. It would certainly make sense that user_2 have usage on the schema in order to operate against the table owned by user_2. I just found it confusing that the discrepancy would cause an issue for user_1, which had all necessary privileges on the schema and references on the reference table. Why would an issue with user_2’s ACL manifest itself with a foreign key validation on insert by user_1 on a table owned by user_1?
