Melvin: My example was somewhat inexact. The full question is as follows: I need to have two groups of tables: the "reference" ones (examples: city, country, customer) which will "reside" in the public schema, and the transaccional ones, which will reside in a schema representing one year/season. These table's definitions must be copied to a new schema at the start of new year/season. One of these tables create script could be as follows CREATE TABLE dailyprogram ( id serial NOT NULL, date timestamp without time zone NOT NULL, packerid integer NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_dailyprogram" PRIMARY KEY (id) ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); ALTER TABLE dailyprogram OWNER TO postgres; My reworded question is: if I run this sql in the new schema, the implicit 'CREATE SEQUENCE dailyprogram_id_seq;' statement will be executed in the new schema, so the sequence will be reset to zero? TIA PS: Of course, I considered the other option: to have a table representing the seasons, and every main transactional table with a foreign key to this season table, but it add a level of indirection to a database which is now very convoluted. On 29/07/17 17:17, Melvin Davidson
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