Hi, > Also, how can I know by looking at the kernel code if a > function is preemptible or not ? You cannot. It is a run time property. So it is theoritically possible (although not quite likely) that one process calls the function while holding a spinlock (making it non-preemptible), and other process calls it without holding any locks (thus preemptible). At run time, ofcourse you can find out if your code is preemptible or not by looking at preempt_count. Thanks, Rajat -- To unsubscribe from this list: send an email with "unsubscribe kernelnewbies" to ecartis@xxxxxxxxxxxx Please read the FAQ at http://kernelnewbies.org/FAQ