Re: MSI on Intel APIC

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i think the "bus address" is not always equality to "physical
address".In X86 ,maybe they are the same,but i think it associate with
the hardware.
i think Rajat's software is not a linux driver, it is the low level
under the OS. PCI firmware, right?

If i was wrong, correct me. Thanks.
Reference:
Document/IO-mapping.txt
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peripheral_Component_Interconnect

BRs

lin,

2009/6/21 Peter Teoh <htmldeveloper@xxxxxxxxx>:
> On Fri, Jun 19, 2009 at 1:40 PM, Rajat Jain<Rajat.Jain@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>>
>> Hello Pei / Tom,
>>
>> Thanks for the response. Actually I understand why the error is coming,
>> but my question is a little different.
>>
>> I'm saying that I understand that MSI works like following:
>>
>> 1) The device is given "an address" and a "value" (using MAR & MDR
>> registers) that it can use later on to generate an interrupt.
>> 2) The device later on when wants to send an interrupt, simply write
>> this "value" into that address using a PCI write transaction.
>> 3) This "address" and "value" is decided by the Intel APIC architecture
>> (described in section 9.12 (MSI) of ""Intel 64 and IA-32 Architectures
>> Software Developer's Manual"
>> http://www.intel.com/Assets/PDF/manual/253668.pdf).
>> 4) It is the responsibility of the Intel APIC to generate an interrupt
>> to the processor when that "value" is written to that "address".
>>
>> Now my question is simply this:
>>
>> Question
>> ========
>> APIC generates an interrupt when the device writes that "value" into
>> that "address". But will it also generate an interrupt if a SOFTWARE
>
> normally, when a device write to an address, it is a physical address
> from the device's perspective.
>
>> writes that same "value" into the same "address"????
>
> but when a CPU write to an address, due to MMU/pagetable in operation,
> it is always a virtual address, that have yet to be translated to a
> physical address.   the API ioremap() and friends are used for getting
> virtual address that will map to the physical address of the hardware
> device.
>
>>
>> Currently, my software tries the same and gets the APIC error interrupt.
>> Which is partly justified by the section 9.6.3 (Illegal register access)
>> since the "address" specified by the same specification (sec 9.12.1)
>> actually falls into the reserved category. But since the device can use
>> that address, theoritically my SW should also be able to? No?
>
> whether it is the hardware device accessing the DMA memory or software
> accessing the DMA memory, is the same.   yes, should be able to.   but
> u have to make sure that they are touching the same physical address.
>  not sure if ioremap() have been used?
>
> sorry if my answer is incorrect......just trying my luck...:-).
>
>>
>> Thanks & Best Regards,
>>
>
>
>
>
>
> --
> Regards,
> Peter Teoh
>
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