>> Wouldn't that cpu appear to the new OS instance as cpu0? If so, then >> it should not be an issue. > > No, I don't believe that it does. > I can try and test this theory if it helps. > Perhaps my mind is corrupted by x86 thoughts. We are talking about logical cpu0 here. Surely the new instance must call whatever cpu it is running on first "0". E.g. I could have used kexec to switch to a UP kernel that only supports cpu0. -Tony - To unsubscribe from this list: send the line "unsubscribe linux-ia64" in the body of a message to majordomo@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx More majordomo info at http://vger.kernel.org/majordomo-info.html
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