On Saturday, February 22, 2014, S Moonesamy <sm+ietf@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"These procedures are intended to be used when other IETF policies and
procedures do not apply or have been ineffective."
The above sounds like government legislation where the law is used as a matter of convenience instead of the original intent.
"Nothing in this document should be taken to interfere with the due
process of law for the legal system under the jurisdiction of which
any harassment takes place."
What does this mean? Would an Area Director contact the authorities (e.g. http://www.hillingdon.gov.uk/article/20737/Anti-social-behaviour-racial-harassment ) if there is reason to do so?
The passage seems quite clear to me. An IETF document (whatever its nature) cannot trump applicable laws. In some countries / jurisdictions, especially when certain forms of harassment are a criminal offense, not informing authorities might be itself a violation of the law. The trick is of course knowing which particular law / legal system would apply. That's not something that can be solved in this document, though.
So, I guess the answer to your question would be "it depends".
In my opinion the person who is subject to harassment is a victim and not a target. The word "target" does not convey any empathy.
Well said.
Best,
Andrea
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