Re: Native-SIP vs. Non-native SIP

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Stella

I think the answer to your question depends on your point of view.

If a PSTN originated call connects with a gateway (i.e., a translator between two dissimilar communications or protocol techniques or methods) and converts that can set up into SIP - realizing that the SIP part needs to not violate any part of our RFCs, then yes, this is native SIP for the SIP leg of the call set up.

Obviously this is not SIP end-to-end (e2e), which some personally define as "native SIP".

I am not one.

I believe native SIP is anywhere there is standards compliant SIP messaging, even if the call set up is not SIP e2e.

Does answer you question?

James

At 04:11 PM 5/8/2009, Stella Gnepp wrote:
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Dear IETF:

I am following up on my April 23, 2009 email (please see below) to see if there has been any feedback on my question regarding the distinction between native and non-native SIP. Please let me know.

Thank you for your assistance.

Sincerely,
Stella Gnepp


----------
From: Stella Gnepp
Sent: Thursday, April 23, 2009 3:20 PM
To: 'iesg-secretary@xxxxxxxx'
Subject: Native-SIP vs. Non-native SIP


Dear IETF:

I am looking for industry standards related to the definition of native-SIP and non-native SIP voice communication.

Specifically, I am trying to determine whether a call is still considered native-SIP if a call originates as TDM, but is converted from TDM to data before leaving the customer?s premises. I am hoping that there is a standard definition that states the point of origination (whether it is at the point of where the call leaves the customer premises, or before then­at the equipment level) for determining whether a call is native-SIP.

Any assistance is greatly appreciated.

Thank you,
Stella Gnepp


Stella Gnepp
TNCI ? Regulatory Affairs Manager
2 Charlesgate West
Boston, MA 02215
Phone:  617.369.1163
Efax:  617.369.1187
Email:  <mailto:sgnepp@xxxxxxxxx>sgnepp@xxxxxxxxx
Web:  <http://www.tncii.com/>www.tncii.com



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