On Tue, 2005-08-23 at 23:02 -0500, Mike McCarty wrote: > My company had no contractural relationships with Company B > whatsoever. Well, I was trying to follow your logic. You changed it in your follow up. Based on that, you _did_ sell products that were marketed with Company B's trademark? Correct? > No. There were no such agreements. There was exactly one piece of > software (in many parts) owned wholly and completely by my company. > Nothing was owned by Company B which Company A acquired by any means > whatsoever. Again, please re-iterate in the A, B, C?, D? nomenclature. A is the software developer/reseller B are the clients C is the trademark holder (even if ex-post-facto) D is someone who licensed something to A (?) Did A use C's trademark publicly? Did A use C's trademark in any context? Is there a D? Is D the company that originated the name (now trademarked)? -- Bryan J. Smith b.j.smith@xxxxxxxx http://thebs413.blogspot.com ---------------------------------------------------------------------- The best things in life are NOT free - which is why life is easiest if you save all the bills until you can share them with the perfect woman