On Friday 01 September 2006 10:15, Ian Astley wrote: > For example, in contrast to most > "British English" norms, I insist on the -ize ending for verbalizing > nouns because that is the traditional British spelling Is it? I understood that the 'correct' 's' or 'z' depends upon whether the word has a Latin or Greek root. Since few of us these days have a classical education, the difference seems to have largely died out. Personally, I just tell my spellchecker to recognise and accept my preferred, Anglicised, version. Few people have any problem understanding, whether the British or US English spelling is used. Rarely do I have a problem with the mis-spellings from those who obviously have English as a second language. What I find utterly incomprehensible is SMS - thanks for the example, Ed ;-) Anne
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